TCS/ TPS Prelims MCQs

1. Which among the following was the only session in which Mahatma Gandhi was elected as Congress President?

[A] Lucknow
[B] Belgaum
[C] Mumbai
[D] Karachi

Ans: B

2. Who among the following founded Anglo-Vedic college? 

[A] Dayanand Saraswati
[B] B. Lala Hansraj
[C] Atmaram Pandurang
[D] MG Ranade

Ans: B

3. Who led the Bardoli Movement?

[A] Vallabhbhai Patel
[B] Mahatma Gandhi
[C] Rajendra Prasad
[D] Chamanlal

Ans: A

4. Consider the following statements:

1. Zamindari Association was founded in 1837 and was later known as the Landholders Society
2. Zamindari Association merged with the British Indian Association within a decade of its formation.
3. British Indian Association was established by Dadabhai Naoroji

Which among the above statements is/ are correct?

[A] Only 1 and 2 are correct
[B] Only 2 & 3 are correct
[C] Only 1 & 3 are correct
[D] All are correct

Ans: A

5. Indigo cultivation in India declined by the beginning of the 20th century Because of

[A] Peasant resistance to the oppressive conduct of planters
[B] National leaders’ opposition to the cultivation of indigo
[C] Its unprofitability in the world market because of new inventions
[D] Government control over the planters

Ans: C

6. Concerning the book “DesherKatha” written by Sakharam Ganesh Deuskar during the freedom struggle, consider the following statements:

1. It warned against the Colonial State’s hypnotic conquest of the mind.
2. It inspired the performance of Swadeshi street plays and folk songs.
3. The use of ‘dish by Deuskar was in the specific context of the region of Bengal.

Which of the statements given above are correct? 

[A] 1 and 2 only
[B] 2 and 3 only
[C] 1 and 3 only
[D] 1,2 and 3

Ans: D

7. Consider the following statements for the Gandhi-Irwin Pact:

1. Invitation of Congress to participate in the Round Table Conference
2. Withdrawal of Ordinances promulgated in connection with the Civil Disobedience Movement
3. Acceptance of Gandhiji’s suggestion for inquiry into police excesses
4. Release of only those prisoners who were not charged with violence

The Gandhi-Irwin pact included which of the following?

Options:

[A] 1,4 only
[B] 1,2 and 4 only
[C] 3 only
[D] 2,3 and 4 only

Ans: B

8. Concerning Swadeshi Movement consider the following statements:

1. It contributed to the revival of indigenous artisan crafts and industries.
2. The National Council of Education was established as a part of the Swadeshi Movement.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 

[A] 1 only
[B] 2 only
[C] Both 1 and 2
[D] Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: A

9. Consider the following pairs:

        Movement/Organization Leader

1. All India Anti-Untouchability League – Mahatma Gandhi
2. All India Kisan Sabha – Swami SahajanandSaraswati
3. Self-Respect Movement – E. V. Ramaswami Naicker

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

[A] 1 only
[B] 1 and 2 only
[C] 2 and 3 only
[D] 1, 2 and 3

Ans: D

10. In the Federation established by The Government of India Act of 1935, residuary powers were given to the- 

[A] Federal Legislature
[B] Governor-General
[C] Provincial Legislature
[D] Provincial Governors

Ans: B

11. Economically, one of the results of the British rule in India in the 19th century was the-

[A] increase in the export of Indian handicrafts
[B] growth in the number of Indian owned factories
[C] commercialization of Indian agriculture
[D] rapid increase in the urban population

Ans: C

12. Which one of the following is a very significant aspect of the Champaran Satyagraha?

[A] Active all-India participation of lawyers, students, and women in the National Movement
[B] Active involvement of Dalit and Tribal communities of India in the National Movement
[C] Joining of peasant unrest to India’s National Movement
[D] Drastic decrease in the cultivation of plantation crops and commercial crops

Ans: C

13. Concerning the Indian freedom struggle, consider the following events:

1. Mutiny in Royal Indian Navy
2. Quit Indian Movement launched
3. Second Round Table Conference

What is the correct chronological sequence of the above events?

[A] 1-2-3
[B] 2-1-3
[C] 3-2-1
[D] 3-1-2

Ans: C

14. The objective of the Butler Committee of 1927 was to- 

[A] Define the jurisdiction of the Central and Provincial Governments.
[B] Define the powers of the Secretary of State for India.
[C] Impose censorship on the national press.
[D] Improve the relationship between the Government of India and the Indian States.

Ans: D

15. The Trade Disputes Act of 1929 provided for-

[A] the participation of workers in the management of industries.
[B] arbitrary powers to the management to quell industrial disputes
[C] an intervention by the British Court in the event of a trade dispute.
[D] a system of tribunals and a ban on strikes.

Ans: D

16. What was the main reason for the split in the Indian National Congress at Surat in 1907?

[A] Introduction of communalism into Indian politics by Lord Minto
[B] Extremists’ lack of faith in the capacity of the moderates to negotiate with the British Government
[C] Foundation of Muslim League
[D] Aurobindo Ghosh’s inability to be elected as the President of the Indian National Congress

Ans: B

17. The demand for the Tebhaga Peasant Movement in Bengal was for-

[A] the reduction of the share of the landlords from one-half of the crop to one-third
[B] the grant of ownership of land to peasants as they were the actual cultivators of the land
[C] the uprooting of Zamindari system and the end of serfdom
[D] writing off all peasant debts

Ans: A

18. The people of India agitated against the arrival of the Simon Commission because-

[A] Indians never wanted the review of the working of the Act of 1919
[B] Simon Commission recommended the abolition of Dyarchy (Diarchy) in the Provinces
[C] there was no Indian member in the Simon Commission
[D] the Simon Commission suggested the partition of the country

Ans: B

19. Who among the following led the Sepoys in Kanpur during the uprising of 1857?

[A] Tantia Tope
[B] Rani Lakshmibai
[C] Nana sahib
[D] Kunwar Singh

Ans: C

20. Which Governor General annulled the partition of Bengal in 1911? 

[A] Lord Hardinge
[B] Lord Amherst
[C] Lord Linlithgow
[D] Lord Curzon

Ans: D

 21. The book “Bhawani Mandir” was written by 

[A] Barindra Kumar Ghosh
[B] Aurobindo Ghosh
[C] Yash Pal
[D] Lokmanya Bal Gangadhar Tilak

Ans: B

22. Who was the first woman President of the Indian National Congress?

[A] Sarojini Naidu
[B] Annie Besant
[C] Vilaylakshmi Pandit
[D] Nellie Sengupta

Ans: B

23. Gandhiji started his Dandi March on- 

[A] 12th March 1930
[B] 10th March 1930
[C] 5th March 1930
[D] 6th April 1930

Ans: A

24. During which Movement did Mahatma Gandhi give the slogan of ‘Do or Die’?

[A] Champaran Satyagraha
[B] Non-Cooperation Movement
[C] Civil Disobedience Movement
[D] Quit India Movement

Ans: D

25. How many delegates had participated in the first session of the Indian National Congress held in 1885?

[A] 60
[B] 68
[C] 72
[D] 8

Ans: C

1. The largest population of Scheduled Tribes is in:

[A] Himachal Pradesh
[B] Madhya Pradesh
[C] Arunachal Pradesh
[D] Sikkim

Ans: B

2. The Himalayan Mountain system belongs to which of the following?

[A] Volcanic mountains
[B] Fold mountains
[C] Block mountains
[D] None of these

Ans: B

3. Arrange the following hill ranges in order from north to south:

I. Nallamala Hills

II. Nilgiri

III. Anaimalai

IV. Cardamon Hills

Choose the correct option from the below options-

[A] I, IV, III, II
[B] I, II, III, IV
[C] II, I, III, IV
[D] I, II, IV, III

Ans: B

4. Arakan Yoma is located in :

[A] Kashmir
[B] Nepal
[C] Baluchistan
[D] Myanmar

Ans:D

5. Which among the following is most prone to earthquakes?

[A] Old shields
[B] Coastal plains
[C] Young, folded mountains
[D] Plateaus

Ans: C

6. What is the correct sequence of the following mountain ranges from south to north?

1. Ladakh Range
2. Karakoram
3. Greater Himalayas
4. Zanskar Range

Choose the correct option:

[A] 3, 1, 4, 2
[B] 3, 4, 1, 2
[C] 4, 2, 3, 1
[D] 4, 3, 2, 1

Ans: B

7. The Tropic of Cancer passes through the States of:

1. Gujarat
2. Jharkhand
3. Assam
4. Mizoram

Choose the correct option:

[A] 1, 2 and 4
[B] 1 and 2
[C] 1, 3 and 4
[D] 1, 2, 3 and 4

Ans: A

8. Which of the following rivers is westward flowing?

[A] Mahanadi
[B] the Godavari
[C] Tapti
[D] Cauvery

Ans: C

9. Consider the following pairs;

1. Narmada: Jabalpur
2. Godavari: Nasik
3. Mahanadi: Cuttack

Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?

[A] 2 and 3
[B] 1 and 3
[C] 1 and 2
[D] 1, 2 and 3

Ans:D

10. Which of the following are the features of the Himalayan rivers?

1. They are youthful, forming deep gorges and performing an intense erosional activity
2. They are free to form their courses and follow a dendritic pattern
3. They have very small basins

    

Choose the following options:

[A] 1 and 2
[B] 1 and 3
[C] 2 and 3
[D] 1, 2, and 3

Ans: A

11. Under which of the following climatic conditions do the laterite soils develop?

[A] Wet tropical Climate
[B] Hot and dry Climate
[C] Cold temperature Climate
[D] Mediterranean type of Climate

Ans: A

12. The soil which is a mixture of sand, clay, and silt is known as:

[A] loamy soil
[B] Sandy soil
[C] clayey soil
[D] desert soil

Ans: A

13. Peaty soil is found in-

[A] Kerala
[B] Kashmir
[C] Assam
[D] Gujarat

Ans: A

14. Consider the following statements:

1. Alluvial soil is rich in chemical properties and capable of yielding both Rabi and Kharif crops.
2. Black soil is suitable for cotton, groundnut.
3. Rabi crops are reaped in autumn after sowing in June.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

[A] 2 only
[B] 1 and 2
[C] 2 and 3
[D] 1,2 and 3

Ans: B

15. Which of the following is the most important commercial forest type of India?

[A] tropical evergreen
[B] tropical deciduous
[C] coniferous
[D] mangrove

Ans: B

16. Xerophytic vegetation is a characteristic feature of:

[A] Chhotanagpur plateau
[B] Khasi hills
[C] the Eastern Ghats
[D] Kuchchh

Ans: D

17. The Himalayan Range is very rich in species diversity. Which one among the following is the most appropriate reason -for this phenomenon?

[A] It has a high rainfall that supports luxuriant vegetative growth
[B] It is a confluence of different bio-geographical zones
[C] Exotic and invasive species have not been introduced in this region
[D] It has less human interference

Ans: B

18. Which one of the following states is the largest producer of natural rubber?

[A] Tamil Nadu
[B] Assam
[C] Kerala
[D] Andhra Pradesh

Ans: C

19. The important feature of shifting cultivation is –

[A] cultivation by transplantation
[B] change of cultivation site
[C] cultivation of Leguminous crops
[D] rotating of crops

Ans: B

20. Match the following:

    Shifting       Cultivation State

A. Jhum          1. Kerala

B. Podu           2. Madhya Pradesh

C. Beera          3. Andhra Pradesh

D. Ponam       4. Assam

      A B C D

[A] 4 3 2 1
[B] 2 1 4 3
[C] 4 1 2 3
[D] 2 3 4 1

Ans: A

1. Who among the following was not a member of the Constituent Assembly?

[A] Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
[B] Acharya J.B. Kriplani
[C] Lok Nayak Jayprakash Narayan
[D] K.M. Munshi

Ans: C

2. The inspiration of ‘Liberty, Equality, and Fraternity was derived from:

[A] American revolution
[B] French revolution
[C] Russian revolution
[D] None of the above

Ans: B

3. The correct nomenclature of India according to the Preamble is:

[A] Sovereign, Secular, Democratic Republic
[B] Sovereign, Democratic Republic
[C] Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic Republic
[D] Sovereign, Secular, Socialist Democracy

Ans: C

4. Which of the following determines that the Indian Constitution is federal? 

[A] A written and rigid Constitution
[B] An independent Judiciary
[C] Vesting of residuary powers with the Centre
[D] Distribution of powers between the Centre and states

Ans: D

5. Prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion is a Fundamental Right classifiable under:

[A] the Right to Freedom of Religion
[B] the Right against Exploitation
[C] the Cultural and Educational Rights
[D] the Right to Equality

Ans:D

6. Which of the following is/are included in the Directive Principles of State Policy?

1. Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labor
2. Prohibition of the consumption except for medicinal purposes of intoxicating drinks and of other drugs which are injurious to health.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

[A] 1 only
[B] 2 only
[C] Both 1 and 2
[D] Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: B

7. As far as Armed Forces are concerned, the fundamental rights· granted under Articles 14 and 19 of the Constitution are:

[A] not available at all
[B] available to armed forces but not to other forces
[C] available only at the discretion of the chief of army staff
[D] available only according to the law made by Parliament

Ans: D

8. Which of the following rights was described by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar as ‘The Heart and Soul of the Constitution?

[A] Right of Freedom of Religion
[B] Right to Property
[C] Right to Equality
[D] Right to Constitutional Remedies

Ans: D

9. Consider the following with respect to the Fundamental Duties:

I . They were introduced by the 44th Amendment.

II. These are incorporated in Part Ill-A.

III. are not justiciable.

Choose the correct option:

[A] I and II
[B] I and III
[C] II and III
[D] III only

Ans:D

10. Which one among the following pairs is not correctly matched?

[A] Power of the Parliament: Creating a new state
[B] Power of state legislature: Altering the name of the state
[C] Equality before law: Guaranteed to both Indian citizens and noncitizens
[D] Equality of opportunity: Guaranteed to only Indian citizens

Ans: B

11. Which of the following are envisaged as being part of the ‘Right against Exploitation in the Constitution of India?

1. Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labor.
2. Abolition of untouchability.
3. Protection of the interests of the minorities.
4. Prohibition of employment of children in factories and mines.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

[A] 1 and 2
[B] 1 and 3
[C] 1 and 4
[D] 2, 3 and 4

Ans: C

12. In which of the following cases did the Supreme Court restore the primacy of the Fundamental Rights over the Directive Principles of State Policy?

[A] Golaknath Case
[B] Keshavananda Bharti Case
[C] Minerva Mills Case
[D] All the above cases

Ans: A

13. Which of the following statements is/are correct?

I. The territory of the units of the Indian federation may be altered by Parliament by a simple majority.

II. The consent of a State Legislature is necessary before Parliament redistributes its territory.

III. The President’s recommendation is necessary for introducing in Parliament a Bill on redistributing territory of any State.

IV. The President must receive the State’s opinion before recommending a Bill on altering the name of the State.

Choose the correct option:

[A] I only
[B] I and II
[C] I, II, and IV
[D] I and III

Ans: D

14. Which of the following are listed as the Directive Principles in Part IV?

I. Equal pay for equal work.

II. Uniform civil code.

III. Small family norm

IV. Education through mother tongue at primary level.

Choose the correct option:

[A] I, II, and III
[B] I and II
[C] II and III
[D] I, II, III, and IV

Ans: B

15. Who acts as the President of India when neither the President nor the Vice-President is available?

[A] Speaker of Lok Sabha
[B] Chief Justice of India
[C] Auditor General of India
[D] Any person appointed by the Parliament

Ans: B

16. Which of the following statements are incorrect?

1. The Rajya Sabha has no power to reject or amend a Money Bill.
2. The Speaker of Lok Sabha has sole and final power of deciding whether a Bill is a Money Bill.
3. In the creation of All-India Services, the Lok Sabha has more powers than the Rajya Sabha.
4. In 1976 the Money Bill was introduced in the Rajya Sabha.

Choose the correct option:

[A] 1,3
[B] 1,3,4
[C] 2,3,4
[D] 3,4

Ans: D

17. What is the correct sequence of the given stages that a Bill passes through before becoming an Act?

I. Getting published in the official gazette.

II. Admitting amendments.

III. Reference to a joint committee.

IV. Presidential assent.

Choose the correct option:

[A] II, III, IV, I
[B] I, III, II, IV
[C] I, II, III, IV
[D] IV, III, II, I

Ans: B

18. Consider the following statements:

1. The mode of removal of a Judge of a High Court in India is the same as that of removal of a Judge of the Supreme Court.

2. After retirement from the office, a permanent Judge of a High Court cannot plead or act in any court or before any authority in India.

Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?

[A] 1 only
[B] 2 only
[C] Both 1 and 2
[D] Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: B

19. Which of the following writs may be issued to enforce a Fundamental Right?

[A] Habeas Corpus
[B] Mandamus
[C] Prohibition
[D] Certiorari

Ans: A

20. What is the correct sequence of steps in the electoral procedure?

I. Filing of nominations.

II. Presidential notification.

III. Scrutiny of nomination papers.

IV. Withdrawal of candidature.

V. Allotment of symbols.

Choose the correct option:

[A] I, III, IV, V, II
[B] II, I, IV, V, III
[C] I, III, V, IV, II
[D] II, I, III, IV, V

Ans: D

21. Which of the following is an extra-constitutional and non-statutory body?

[A] Finance Commission
[B] Election Commission
[C] NITI Aayog
[D] Union Public Service Commission

Ans: C

22. The idea of “Welfare State” in the Indian Constitution is enshrined in its-

[A] Preamble
[B] Directive Principles of State Policy
[C] Fundamental Rights
[D] Seventh Schedule

Ans: B

23. Which of the following article of the Indian Constitution deals with the constitution of the Parliament of India?

[A] Article 73
[B] Article 78
[C] Article 79
[D] Article 72

Ans: B

24. The Panchayati Raj was first introduced in

[A] Madhya Pradesh
[B] Kerala
[C] Rajasthan
[D] West Bengal

Ans: C

25. The Legislative Council of a State:

I. is not subject to dissolution.

II. can be abolished by the State Legislative Assembly.

III. can be abolished by the President on the Governor’s recommendation.

Choose the correct option:

[A] I only
[B] II only
[C] I and II
[D] III only

Ans: C

1. Insecticides usually act upon-

[A] Muscular system
[B] Digestive system
[C] Nervous system
[D] Circulatory system

Ans: C

2. Green muffler is used against which type of pollution?

[A] Air
[B] Noise
[C] Soil
[D] Water

Ans: B

3. Indiscriminate use of DDT is undesirable because-

[A] it causes mutation
[B] it is degradable
[C] it accumulates in the food chain
[D] None of the above

Ans: C

4. Clouded Leopard National Park is located in which state?

[A] Himachal Pradesh
[B] Uttarakhand
[C] Sikkim
[D] Tripura

Ans: D

5. Agenda 21’ of Rio Summit, 1992 is related to-

[A] Sustainable development
[B] Combating the consequences of population explosion.
[C] Mitigation norms of Green House Gases (GHGs) emission.
[D] Technology transfer mechanism to developing countries for ‘clean-energy production

Ans: A

6. Biodiversity forms the basis for human existence in which of the following ways?

1. Soil formation
2. Prevention of soil erosion
3. Recycling of waste
4. Pollination of crops

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

[A] 1, 2, and 3 only
[B] 2, 3, and 4 only
[C] 1 and 4 only
[D] 1, 2, 3 and 4

Ans: D

7. Consider the following gases:

1. Carbon dioxide
2. Oxides of Nitrogen
3. Oxides of Sulphur

Which of the above are/are the emission/ emissions from coal combustion at thermal power plants?

[A] 1 only
[B] 2 and 3 only
[C] 1 and 3 only
[D] 1, 2 and 3

Ans: D

8. It is the largest coastal lagoon in India and the largest wintering ground for migratory birds on the Indian sub-continent. A wetland of international importance under the Ramsar Convention, it is-

[A] Vembanad Lake
[B] Chilka Lake
[C] Kolleru Lake
[D] Sultanpur Lake

Ans: B

9. Eutrophication of a water body necessarily involves

1) Gradual heating of the water body

2) Inflow of nutrients in the water body

3) Calcification of bed deposits

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

[A] 1 only
[B] 2 and 3 only
[C] 2 only
[D] 1, 2 and 3

Ans: C

10. The pyramid of energy in an ecosystem is always upright because

1) The continuous loss of energy due to metabolic activity puts limits on how much energy is available to higher trophic levels.

2) There is a loss of energy at each trophic level in being transferred to the higher trophic level.

Which of the above is/are correct?

[A] 1 only
[B] 2 only
[C] Both 1 and 2
[D] None

Ans: C

11. Consider the following statements regarding Ecotones:

1. Which of the following estimates theNational Income in India?

[A] Central Statistical Organization 
[B] National Income Committee
[C] Niti Aayog
[D] Reserve Bank of India

Ans: A

2. The Gandhian economy is based on the principle of-

[A] Competition
[B] Trusteeship
[C] State Control
[D] None of the above

Ans: B

3. Development expenditure of the Central government does not include-

[A] defense expenditure
[B] expenditure on economic services
[C] expenditure on social and community services
[D] grant to states

Ans: A

4. Devaluation of a currency means-

[A] permitting the currency to seek its worth in the international market
[B] fixing the value of the currency in conjunction with the movement in the value of a basket of pre-determined currencies
[C] reduction in the value of a currency vis-a-vis major internationally traded currencies
[D] fixing the value of the currency in multilateral consultation with the IMF, the World Bank, and major trading partner reduction in the value of a currency vis-a-vis major internationally traded currencies

Ans: C

5. Most relevant reason for India’s occupational structure remaining more or less the same over the years has been that

[A] investment pattern has been directed towards capital intensive industries
[B] productivity in agriculture has been high enough to induce people to stay with agriculture
[C] ceiling on land holdings have enabled more people to own land and hence their preference to stay with agriculture
[D] people are largely unaware of the significance of the transition from agriculture to industry for economic development

Ans: A

6. When the Cash Reserve Ratio(CRR) is lowered by the RBI, its impact on credit creation will be to

[A] increase it
[B] decrease it
[C] no impact
[D] None of the above

Ans: A

7. The important means of resource transfer (the transfer of resources from the center to the states) includes/include-

[A] tax sharing
[B] grants-in-aid
[C] loans
[D] All the above

Ans: D

8. In pursuance of the recommendations of the Narasimhan Committee, the RBI has framed new guidelines

[A] to govern the entry of new private sector banks to make the banking sector more competitive
[B] to reduce the freedom given to banks to rationalize their existing branch network
[C] to setup more foreign exchange banks
[D] to lend more easily for industrial development

Ans: A

9. Which of the following is not regarded as a national debt?

[A] Provident Fund
[B] Life Insurance Policies
[C] National Saving Certificate
[D] Long-term Government Bonds

Ans: C

10. Consider the following statements regarding Regional Rural Banks(RRBs):

I. They have a limited area of operation.

II. The free access to liberal refinance facilities from NABARD.

III. RRBs are required to lend only to weaker sections.

Which of the above are true?

[A] I, III
[B] II, III
[C] I, II, III
[D] I, II

Ans: D

11. Fiscal deficit in the Union Budget is-

[A] the difference between current expenditure and current revenue
[B] net increase in Union Governments borrowings from the Reserve Bank of India
[C] the sum of budgetary deficit and a net increase in internal and external borrowings
[D] the sum of monetized deficit and budgetary deficit

Ans: C

12. Head Count Ratio is used as a measure of-

[A] Poverty
[B] Inequality
[C] Unemployment
[D] All of the above

Ans: A

13. GDP @market price-GDP @factor cost=

[A] Direct taxes
[B] Indirect taxes
[C] Subsidies
[D] Sum of A, B, and C

Ans: B

14. Which of the following is the largest contributor to gross domestic savings in India?

[A] The household Sector
[B] The Public Sector
[C] The private sector
[D] The foreign sector

Ans: A

15. The outcome of RBI’s expansionist open market operations policy is-

[A] It will buy securities from non-government holders
[B] RBI will sell securities in the open market
[C] It will offer commercial banks more credit in the open market
[D] Will openly announce to the market that it intends to expand credit

Ans: C

1. The largest population of Scheduled Tribes is in:

[A] Himachal Pradesh
[B] Madhya Pradesh
[C] Arunachal Pradesh
[D] Sikkim

Ans: B

2. The Himalayan Mountain system belongs to which of the following?

[A] Volcanic mountains
[B] Fold mountains
[C] Block mountains
[D] None of these

Ans: B

3. Arrange the following hill ranges in order from north to south:

I. Nallamala Hills

II. Nilgiri

III. Anaimalai

IV. Cardamon Hills

Choose the correct order:

[A] I, IV, III, II
[B] I, II, III, IV
[C] II, I, III, IV
[D] I, II, IV, III

Ans: B

4. Arakan Yoma is located in :

[A] Kashmir
[B] Nepal
[C] Baluchistan
[D] Myanmar

Ans: D

5. Which among the following is most prone to earthquakes?

[A] Old shields
[B] Coastal plains
[C] Young, folded mountains
[D] Plateaus

Ans: C 

6. What is the correct sequence of the following mountain ranges from south to north?

1. Ladakh Range
2. Karakoram
3. Greater Himalayas
4. Zanskar Range

Choose the correct Option:

[A] 3, 1, 4, 2
[B] 3, 4, 1, 2
[C] 4, 2, 3, 1
[D] 4, 3, 2, 1

Ans: B

7. The Tropic of Cancer passes through the States of:

1. Gujarat
2. Jharkhand
3. Assam
4. Mizoram

Choose the correct Option:

[A] 1, 2 and 4
[B] 1 and 2
[C] 1, 3 and 4
[D] 1, 2, 3 and 4

Ans: A

8. Which of the following rivers is westward flowing?

[A] Mahanadi
[B] the Godavari
[C] Tapti
[D] Cauvery

Ans: C

9. Consider the following pairs;

1. Narmada: Jabalpur
2. Godavari: Nasik
3. Mahanadi: Cuttack

Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?

[A] 2 and 3
[B] 1 and 3
[C] 1 and 2
[D] 1, 2 and 3

Ans: D

10. Which of the following are the features of the Himalayan rivers?

1. They are youthful, forming deep gorges and performing an intense erosional activity
2. They are free to form their courses and follow a dendritic pattern
3. They have very small basins

Choose the correct option:

[A] I and II
[B] I and III
[C] II and III
[D] I, II, and III

Ans: A

11. Under which of the following climatic conditions do the laterite soils develop?

[A] Wet tropical Climate
[B] Hot and dry Climate
[C] Cold temperature Climate
[D] Mediterranean type of Climate

Ans: A

12. The soil which is a mixture of sand, clay, and silt is known as:

[A] loamy soil
[B] Sandy soil
[C] clayey soil
[D] desert soil

Ans: A

13. Peaty soil is found in-

[A] Kerala
[B] Kashmir
[C] Assam
[D] Gujarat

Ans: A

14. Consider the following statements:

1. Alluvial soil is rich in chemical properties and capable of yielding both Rabi and Kharif crops.
2. Black soil is suitable for cotton, groundnut.
3. Rabi crops are reaped in autumn after sowing in June.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

[A] 2 only
[B] 1 and 2
[C] 2 and 3
[D] 1,2 and 3

Ans: B

15. Which of the following is the most important commercial forest type of India?

[A] tropical evergreen
[B] tropical deciduous
[C] coniferous
[D] mangrove

Ans: B

16. Xerophytic vegetation is a characteristic feature of:

[A] Chhotanagpur plateau
[B] Khasi hills
[C] the Eastern Ghats
[D] Kuchchh

Ans: D

17. The Himalayan Range is very rich in species diversity. Which one among the following is the most appropriate reason -for this phenomenon?

[A] It has a high rainfall that supports luxuriant vegetative growth
[B] It is a confluence of different bio-geographical zones
[C] Exotic and invasive species have not been introduced in this region
[D] It has less human interference

Ans: B

18. Which one of the following states is the largest producer of natural rubber?

[A] Tamil Nadu
[B] Assam
[C] Kerala
[D] Andhra Pradesh

Ans: C

19. The important feature of shifting cultivation is –

[A] cultivation by transplantation
[B] change of cultivation site
[C] cultivation of Leguminous crops
[D] rotating of crops

Ans: C

20. Match the following:

         Shifting    Cultivation State

1. Jhum     1. Kerala
2. Podu      2. Madhya Pradesh
3. Beera     3. Andhra Pradesh
4. Ponam   4. Assam

      A B C D

[A] 4 3 2 1
[B] 2 1 4 3
[C] 4 1 2 3
[D] 2 3 4 1

Ans: A

1. Which among the following was the correct title of the National Anthem of India when it was originally penned by Rabindranath Tagore?

[A] Jana Gana Mana

[B] Bharat Bhagya

[C] Bharat Bhagya Vidhata

[D] Bharat Vidhata

Correct Answer: D

2. Who wrote ‘Indian War of Independence, 1857′?

[A] R.C Majumdar

[B] V.D. Savarkar

[C] S.B. Chaudhary

[D] S.N. Sen

Correct Answer: B             

3. Which among the following tribal leaders was regarded as an incarnation of God and father of the world?

[A] Nanak Bhil

[B] Jagia Bhagat

[C] Birsa Munda

[D] Siddhu Santha

Correct Answer: C

4. On which date, Constituent Assembly of India met for the first time?

[A] June 3, 1946

[B] June 6, 1946

[C] December 9, 1946

[D] June 12, 1946

Correct Answer: C

5. In which year, Partition of Bengal was annulled?

[A] 1909

[B] 1910

[C] 1911

[D] 1912

Correct Answer: C

6. Every year in January, India, and Pakistan exchange their list of nuclear installations through their diplomatic missions under an agreement on the prohibition of attacks against nuclear installations and facilities. In which year, such an agreement was signed?

[A] 1986

[B] 1988

[C] 1990

[D] 1992

Correct Answer: B

7. On which date Jallianwala Massacre occur?

[A] August 13, 1919

[B] April 13, 1919

[C] January 13, 1919

[D] June 13, 1919

Correct Answer: B              

8. In which year, the Danish East India Company was formed?

[A] 1614

[B] 1615

[C] 1616

[D] 1617

Correct Answer: C

9. Who was the Viceroy of India when the Jallianwala Bagh Massacre took place?

[A] Lord Harding II

[B] Lord Chelmsford

[C] Lord Reading

[D] Lord Minto II

Correct Answer: B

10. Where was the Hindustan Socialist Republican Association (HSRA) founded?

[A] Kanpur

[B] Nasik

[C] Delhi

[D] Lahore

Correct Answer: C

11. Who was the editor of the newspaper “Kesari”?

[A] Bipin Chandra Pal

[B] Annie Besant

[C] Bal Gangadhar Tilak

[D] Gopal Ganesh Agarak

Correct Answer: C

12. Who of the following was the main leader of the great revolt of 1857?

[A] Khan Bahadur Khan

[B] Bahadur Shah Zafar

[C] Tatya Tope

[D] Laxmi Bai

Correct Answer: B

13. Who of the following was the main leader of the great revolt of 1857?

[A] Khan Bahadur Khan

[B] Bahadur Shah Zafar

[C] Tatya Tope

[D] Laxmi Bai

Correct Answer: B

14. The Indian Universities Act was passed in which year?

[A] 1899

[B] 1902

[C] 1904

[D] 1907

Correct Answer: C

15. Gokhale’s Political Testaments were published in which year?

[A] 1910

[B] 1911

[C] 1915

[D] 1917

Correct Answer: D

16. Dadabhai Naoroji was elected as the President of the Congress session for how many times?

[A] 2

[B] 3

[C] 4

[D] 5

Correct Answer: B

17. Who is the writer of the book “Poverty and Un-British Rule in India”?

[A] Lala Lajpat Roy

[B] Gopal Ganesh Agarkar

[C] Mahadev Govind Ranade

[D] Dadabhai Naoroji

Correct Answer: D

18. Which of the following female revolutionary fired at the English Governor (Chancellor) while receiving her degree at the convocation?

[A] Shanti Ghosh

[B] Suniti Chaudhary

[C] Bina Das

[D] Kalpana Dutta

Correct Answer: D

19. The Asiatic Society of Bengal was founded by which of the following?

[A] J.A. Hickey

[B] Max. Muller

[C] Wilkins

[D] William Jones

Correct Answer: D

20. In which year, Court of Judicature was established in Bombay?

[A] 1727

[B] 1733

[C] 1718

[D] 1722

Correct Answer: C

21. In which year, Mahatma Gandhi returned to India from South Africa?

[A] 1913

[B] 1914

[C] 1915

[D] 1916

Correct Answer: C

22. Who was the founder leader of ‘Muslim Faqirs’?

[A] Majnun Shah

[B] Dadu Mian

[C] Tipu

[D] Chirag Ali Shah

Correct Answer: A

23. The Battle of Buxar was fought between the British East India Company and:

[A] Mir Qasim

[B] Saadat Ali Khan II

[C] Ali Vardi Khan

[D] Siraj ud-Daulah

Correct Answer: A

24. The Treaty of Alinagar was signed in ___?

[A] February 1756

[B] September 1756

[C] February 1757

[D] April 1757

Correct Answer: C

25. Moderates and the Extremists in the Indian National Congress split in 1907 at __?

[A] Surat

[B] Calcutta

[C] Nagpur

[D] Madras

Correct Answer: A

26. The Battle of Chillianwalla was a part of?

[A] Anglo-Maratha Wars

[B] Anglo-Carnatic Wars

[C] Anglo-French Wars

[D] Anglo-Sikh Wars

Correct Answer: D

27. Mahatma Gandhi had launched his first Satyagraha in India from which among the following places?

[A] Kheda

[B] Bardoli

[C] Champaran

[D] Sabarmati

Correct Answer: C

28. Rajmala’ is an important source of History of which among the following states of India?

[A] Nagaland

[B] Assam

[C] Tripura

[D] Jammu & Kashmir

Correct Answer: C

28. Yudh Abhyas is a military exercise between:

[A] India – UK

[B] India – USA

[C] India – Russia

[D] India – Israel

Correct Answer: B

30. From which of the following, East India Company acquired Bombay on a lease on 27 March 1668?

[A] British Empire

[B] Spain

[C] Portugal

[D] France

Correct Answer: C

31. Mahatma Gandhi’s remarks, “A Post-dated cheque on a crumbling bank” was regarding the proposals of which of the following?

[A] Government of India Act 1935

[B] Wavel Plan

[C] Cripps Mission

[D] Simon Commission

Correct Answer: C

32. New India’ and ‘Commonweal’ newspapers were started by:

[A] Madan Mohan Malviya

[B] Subramaniam Iyer

[C] Annie Besant

[D] Lala Lajpat Rai

Correct Answer: C

33. For the first time, female infanticide was prohibited by which Governor-General?

[A] Lord Ellenborough

[B] Lord Canning

[C] Lord Hardinge I

[D] Lord John Shore

Correct Answer: D

34. Which country hosted the first G20 meeting of Finance Ministers and Central Bank Governors of 2018?

[A] India

[B] Germany

[C] Argentina

[D] France

Correct Answer: C

35. Who among the following was the immediate successor of Guru Nanak?

[A] Guru Angad

[B] Guru Arjun

[C] Guru Amardas

[D] Guru Ramdas

Correct Answer: A

36. Who was Prime Minister of England when the Simon Commission came to India to review the working of the Government of India Act 1919?

[A] Stanley Baldwin

[B] David Lloyd Georg

[C] Ramsay MacDonald

[D] Minto

Correct Answer: A

37. Which among the following award was instituted in the last?

[A] Dada Saheb Phalke Award

[B] Bhartiya Jnanpeeth Award

[C] Arjuna Award

[D] Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award

Correct Answer: D

38. Who among the following repealed the Vernacular Press Act?

[A] Lord Lytton

[B] Lord Ripon

[C] Lord Dufferin

[D] Lord Lansdowne

Correct Answer: B

39. Who among the following was the first Secretary-General of the Non-Alignment Movement?

[A] Gamal Abdul Nasser

[B] Jawahar Lal Nehru

[C] Josip Broz Tito

[D] Sukarno

Correct Answer: C

40. The Jakarta History Museum located in old Jakarta; Indonesia was once used as the headquarters of which of the following?

[A] British East India Company

[B] Dutch East India Company

[C] Portuguese East India Company

[D] Danish East India Company

Correct Answer: B

41. The Rajiv Gandhi action plan, put forward by the late Leader in 1988 is related to which among the following?

[A] Environment Protection

[B] Nuclear Disarmament

[C] Information Technology

[D] Multilateral Trade

Correct Answer: B

42. In which year, India Office of the Secretary of State for India and Burma come to an end?

[A] 1943

[B] 1945

[C] 1947

[D] 1950

Correct Answer: C

43. Anglo-Indian Henry Vivian Derozio is associated with__?

[A] Self Respect Movement

[B] Justice Party Movement

[C] Young Bengal Movement

[D] Seva Sadan

Correct Answer: C

44. Who among the following was also known as Gadadhar Chattopadhyay?

[A] Acharya Vinoba Bhave

[B] Ramakrishna Paramhansa

[C] Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar

[D] Raja Ram Mohan Roy

Correct Answer: B

45. Which committee was formed for the determination of the boundary of India and Pakistan?

[A] Hartog committee

[B] Radcliffe committee

[C] Zakir Hussain committee

[D] Lee commission

Correct Answer: B

46. During the Indian Freedom Struggle, why did Rowlatt Act arouse popular indignation?

[A] It curtailed the freedom of religion.

[B] It suppressed the Indian traditional education.

[C] It authorized the government to imprison people without trial

[D] It curbed the trade union activities.

Correct Answer: C

47. When did Albuquerque acquire Goa?

[A] 1507

[B] 1510

[C] 1515

[D] 1517

Correct Answer: B

48. Who were the last Europeans to come to India for trading?

[A] English

[B] Danes

[C] French

[D] Dutch

Correct Answer: C

49. The Battle of Ambur was fought in which year?

[A] 1746

[B] 1749

[C] 1755

[D] 1758

Correct Answer: B

50. Warren Hastings is known as which of the following?

[A] First Governor-General of Bengal

[B] First Governor-General of India

[C] First Viceroy of Bengal

[D] First Viceroy of India

Correct Answer: A

51. To supervise the land revenue collection process during the reign of Warren Hastings, a Board of Revenue was set up in which of the following places?

[A] Calcutta

[B] Monghyr

[C] Murshidabad

[D] Bhagalpur

Correct Answer: A

52. Who of the following is referred to as “Rough, crude but intelligent Chit Pavan Brahmin”?

[A] Bajirao I

[B] Balaji Viswanath

[C] Balaji Bajirao II

[D] Sivaji

Correct Answer: B

53. Sind was annexed during the governor generalship of which of the following British personalities?

[A] William Bentinck

[B] Charles Metcalfe

[C] Lord Hardinge

[D] Lord Ellenborough

Correct Answer: D

54. Who of the following was the first holder of the post of Secretary of State for India?

[A] Lord Stanley

[B] Viscount Cranborne

[C] Lord George Hamilton

[D] Lord Pethick-Lawrence

Correct Answer: A

55. First Famine Commission in India was appointed in which year?

[A] 1878

[B] 1880

[C] 1883

[D] 1885

Correct Answer: A

56. Which of the following was the main purpose of appointing the Hunter Commission?

[A] To enquire about the administration of Lord Ripon

[B] To enquire about the Elbert Bill

[C] To enquire about the Wood’s Dispatch

[D] None of the above

Correct Answer: C

57. Who of the following was the secretary of state for India when the Morley-Minto Act was passed?

[A] John Morley

[B] William Gladstone

[C] George Hamilton

[D] None of the above

Correct Answer: A

58. The capital of India was transferred from Calcutta to Delhi in which year?

[A] 1905

[B] 1906

[C] 1911

[D] 1915

Correct Answer: C

59. The first session of the All-India States Peoples Conference was held in which of the following place?

[A] Bombay

[B] Madras

[C] Bengal

[D] None of the above

Correct Answer: A

60. Who of the following was the viceroy of India when the First Round Table Conference took place_

[A] Lord Willingdon

[B] Lord Linlithgow

[C] Lord Reading

[D] Lord Irwin

Correct Answer: D

61. Which of the following acts is known as the “An Act for the Better Government of India”?

[A] Charter Act of 1853

[B] Indian Council Act of 1861

[C] Government of India Act of 1858

[D] Indian Council Act of 1892

Correct Answer: C

62. Saddler Commission was appointed mainly to investigate the problems of which among the following universities?

[A] Bombay University

[B] Calcutta University

[C] Delhi University

[D] Kanpur University

Correct Answer: B

63. Which of the following is the objective of the Left movement?

[A] Revolutionary changes

[B] Status quo

[C] No action against the state of affairs

[D] None of the above

Correct Answer: A

64. In which of the following years did the Nawab of Awadh virtually become independent of the Mughal rule?

[A] 1740

[B] 1753

[C] 1756

[D] 1665

Correct Answer: B

65. The fortification of Calcutta by the British in 1756 was regarded by the Nawab of Bengal, Siraj-ud-Daulah, as

[A] Growth of large-scale British trade

[B] An attack upon his sovereignty

[C] Insecurity of the British in India

[D] British control over Bengal

Correct Answer: B

66. Which of the following Governors-General was conversant with Arabic, Persian, and Bengali?

[A] Sir John Shore

[B] Lord Cornwallis

[C] Lord William Bentinck

[D] Warren Hastings

Correct Answer: D

67. Between which of the following stations was the first railway line opened in India?

[A] Calcutta to Raniganj

[B] Bombay to Pune

[C] Calcutta to Jamshedpur

[D] Bombay to Thane

Correct Answer: D

68. Bhagat Singh, Raj Guru, and Sukhdev were hanged during the reign of which of the following Viceroy of India?

[A] Lord Curzon

[B] Lord Irwin

[C] Lord Minto

[D] Lord Chelmsford

Correct Answer: B

69. In which year, Privy Council was created to hear appeals from the courts in British Colonies?

[A] 1726

[B] 1768

[C] 1802

[D] 1833

Correct Answer: D                                    

70. Even if there were a large Hindu population and Hindu king, which of the following princely states had a tendency to join Pakistan after India’s Independence?

[A] Gwalior

[B] Jodhpur

[C] Travancore

[D] Baroda

Correct Answer: B

71. Which of the following kingdoms granted the “Golden Farman” to the British to trade freely in the state?

[A] Hyderabad

[B] Bijapur

[C] Golkunda

[D] Ahmednagar

Correct Answer: C

72. Who among the following was placed on the throne of Nawab of Bengal after the Battle of Buxar?

[A] Shiraj-ud-daulah

[B] Mir Kasim

[C] Mir Jafar

[D] Najimuddin Ali Khan

Correct Answer: C

73. Plassey, which is famous for the Battle of Plassey, is located in which among the following current states of India?

[A] West Bengal

[B] Bihar

[C] Chhattisgarh

[D] Jharkhand

Correct Answer: A

74. The Indian National Association was formed in Calcutta by whom among the following?

[A] Dwarkanath Tagore

[B] Surendranath Banerjee

[C] Prasanno Kumar Tagore

[D] Debendranath Tagore

Correct Answer: B

75. The first Indian woman to preside a session of the Indian National Congress was__?

[A] Rajkumari Amrit Kaur

[B] Vijaya Lakshmi Pandit

[C] Aruna Asaf Ali

[D] Sarojini Naidu

Correct Answer: D

76. The name of “Operation Trojan Horse” has been linked to the martyrdom of which among the following freedom fighters?

[A] Bhagat Singh, Rajguru and Sukhdev,

[B] Chandra Shekhar Azad

[C] Khudi Ram Bose

[D] Madan Lal Dhingra

Correct Answer: A

77. Yudh Abhyas is a military exercise between:

[A] India – UK

[B] India – USA

[C] India – Russia

[D] India – Israel

Correct Answer: B

78. In which year split in All India Trade Union Congress took place?

[A] 1920

[B] 1925

[C] 1929

[D] 1935

Correct Answer: C

79. In which year, Capital of India was shifted to Delhi from Kolkata?

[A] 1910

[B] 1911

[C] 1915

[D] 1917

Correct Answer: B

80. In which year, Liaquat–Nehru Pact was signed?

[A] 1947

[B] 1949

[C] 1950

[D] 1955

Correct Answer: C

81. Who among the following was the president of the British Indian Association that was founded in 1851?

[A] Radhakant Deb

[B] Debendranath Tagore

[C] Prasanna Kumar

[D] Dwarakanath Tagore

Correct Answer: A

82. Who led the Revolt of 1857 in Coimbatore?

[A] Deepuji Rana

[B] Surender Sai

[C] Mulbagal Swami

[D] Rao Tularam

Correct Answer: C

83. Who among the following started the newspaper “Amrit Bazar Patrika”?

[A] Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar

[B] Dayanand Saraswati

[C] Shishir Kumar Ghosh

[D] Lala Jagat Narayan

Correct Answer: C

84. Who among the following founded National Theatre, the first Bangla professional theatre company?

[A] Michael Madhu Sudan

[B] Dina Bandhu Mitra

[C] Girish Chandra Ghosh

[D] DL Roy

Correct Answer: C

85. Which committee was formed for the determination of the boundary of India and Pakistan?

[A] Hartog committee

[B] Radcliffe committee

[C] Zakir Hussain committee

[D] Lee commission

Correct Answer: B

86.How was Siraj-ud-Daula related to Ali Vardi Khan?

[A] Son

[B] Grandson

[C] Nephew

[D] Son-in-law

Correct Answer: B

87. During the time of Lord Curzon, the Dalai Lama of Tibet was influenced by who of the following?

[A] Yaroslav

[B] Boris

[C] Dorjieff

[D] Leonid

Correct Answer: C

88. Simon commission was appointed during which of the following viceroys?

[A] Lord Irwin

[B] Lord Reading

[C] Lord Hardinge II

[D] Lord Linlithgow

Correct Answer: A

89. Who was the Viceroy of India when the Royal Indian Navy Mutiny took place?

[A] Lord Wavell

[B] Lord Linlithgow

[C] Lord Minto II

[D] Lord Mountbatten

Correct Answer: A

90. The Regulating Act was passed in which year?

[A] 1765

[B] 1773

[C] 1784

[D] 1793

Correct Answer: B

91. Who of the following was the Secretary of State for India when the Simon Commission came to India?

[A] Lord Birkenhead

[B] Viscount Peel

[C] Lord Olivier

[D] Lord Stanley

Correct Answer: A

92. Who of the following governor-general introduced the Hindu Widows’ Remarriage Act?

[A] Lord Bentinck

[B] Lord Dalhousie

[C] Lord Canning

[D] Lord Rippon

Correct Answer: B

93. Queen Victoria’s proclamation was declared during the viceroyship of who of the following?

[A] Lord Canning

[B] Lord Mayo

[C] Lord Lytton

[D] Lord Hardinge I

Correct Answer: A

94. Fox’s India Bill was introduced in which year?

[A] 1780

[B] 1783

[C] 1799

[D] 1802

Correct Answer: B

95. Which of the following acts was considered as the final step towards centralization in British India?

[A] Regulating Act of 1773

[B] Charter Act of 1813

[C] Charter Act of 1833

[D] None of the above

Correct Answer: C

96. Who of the following attended all three round table conferences?

[A] B.R. Ambedkar

[B] Gandhiji

[C] Rettamalai Srinivasan

[D] Lala Lajpat Roy

Correct Answer: A

97. Who among the following was the founder of Sangat Sabha?

[A] Raja Rammohan Roy

[B] Keshab Chandra Sen

[C] Debendranath Tagore

[D] Henry Derozio

Correct Answer: B

98. What was the name of the first English ship that arrived in India?

[A] Elizabeth

[B] Titanic

[C] Red Dragon

[D] Mayflower

Correct Answer: C

99. Which of the following granted the permission to establish the first British factory at Hoogly in Bengal?

[A] Shah Shuja

[B] Murshid Quli Khan

[C] Shujauddin

[D] Alivardi Khan

Correct Answer: A

100. Which of the following was the most important industry of India in the 18th century?

[A] Metal Handicrafts

[B] Cotton Cloth

[C] Wooden Products

[D] Fisheries

Correct Answer: B